Imagine these scenarios, if you will:
After the 1982 NBA Finals, Dr. J, increasingly frustrated at two losses to the Lakers in the Finals, decides to join Showtime in LA.
Larry Bird, beaten by Showtime twice in 85 and 87, spends his twilight in purple-and-gold, joining his hated rival...or even deciding years before that to come to Philly, after the Sixers beat the Celtics in 80 and 82.
Isaiah Thomas decides to leave Detroit and get traded to Boston for DJ, teaming up with Bird.
Your basketball god Michael Jordan, embarrassed after three straight ass beatings to the Bad Boys in 88, 89, and 90, ditches the Bulls, and runs to the Motor City instead.
Even A.I., after Reggie and Pacers smoked them out of the playoffs two straight years in 1999 and 2000, tries to get glory in Indiana, knowing he had NO HELP in Philly.
Imagine ANY one of these scenarios playing themselves out? How would you view that player? You'd clown them to oblivion.
So, why does a guy get a pass for joining the team that beat him the year before, when he had a 3-1 lead on them?
Look, no one ever said KD had to stay in OKC and work it out. It was clear him and Westbrook had ran their course. BUT, he had offers and opportunities:
He could've went to Miami to play with Wade and Whiteside.
He could've went to the Knicks with Melo and the Unicorn.
He could've skipped to Boston to play with Hortford and Rondo at the time.
Portland's backcourt with Dame and CJ would've fit him fine.
Same goes for Toronto with Lowry and Derozan.
He could've even did the noble thing and went home to DC to play with John Wall and Bradley Beal.
Any one of those moves had him on a seriously contending team.
Nope. He took the coward's way out and ran to be "in the crowd with the cool kids" in Oakland, so why should he get a pass for that?
Someone explain this.